Storage Technology Foundations
Index >> EMC >> Legato Cert >> "E20-001"Exam
VUE/Prometric Code:E20-001
Questions and Answers:201 Q&As
Price:$99
Updated:2008-11-12
| Storage Technology Foundations | |||
| Test | Q&A | Updated | Price |
| E20-001 | 201 Q&A | 2008-11-12 | $99 |
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E20-001:please download E20-001 in PDF format Demo 
1. Data is being replicated from site A to site B using disk buffering to create extended distance consistent point in time copies every hour. In the event of a site failure at A, what is the maximum amount of data that will be missing at site B?
A. 1 hour
B. 2 hours
C. 3 hours
D. 4 hours
Answer: B
2. What is a remote replication solution for EMC CLARiiON storage systems?
A. MirrorView/A
B. SnapView
C. SRDF/AR
D. TimeFinder
Answer: A
3. Which represents a common implementation of a storage network with limited scalability?
A. CSMA/CD
B. Fibre Channel Arbitrated Loop
C. Store and Forward
D. Switched Fabric
Answer: B
4. Click on the Exhibit button. Identify the E Port and Edge switch in the SAN Core/Edge exhibit.
A. 1 and 6
B. 4 and 5
C. 7 and 5
D. 6 and 3
Answer: A
5. What is the process that writes physical address information to a disk?
A. Concatenating
B. Formatting
C. Partitioning
D. Striping
Answer: B
6. The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of a company is 4 hours. Which statement is true in the event of a disaster?
A. Must be able to restart their network within 4 hours
B. Must be able to restart their servers within 4 hours
C. Must be able to resume production within 4 hours
D. No more than 4 hours of production data can be lost
Answer: D
7. Which technology is designed for storage of fixed content data?
A. CAS
B. DAS
C. NAS
D. SAN
Answer: A
8. In SAN, if the primary concern is cabling flexibility, what method of zoning should be employed?
A. Hard Zoning
B. Mixed Zoning
C. Port Zoning
D. WWN Zoning
Answer: D
9. A disk has Cylinder Head Sector (CHS) values of 1000, 4 and 25. What address range will be used for the Logical Block Address (LBA) values for this disk?
A. 0 - 49,999
B. 0 - 99,999
C. 1 - 50,000
D. 1 - 100,000
Answer: B
10. Which key requirement of the Data Center infrastructure addresses the concern of data on storage systems being accessible 24X7?
A. Availability
B. Manageability
C. Performance
D. Scalability
Answer: A
11. What is the protocol used by a Windows client to communicate with a NAS device?
A. CIFS
B. FCP
C. NFS
D. SCSI
Answer: A
12. What are two parts of cache?
A. Bitmap store and dirty store
B. Data store and bitmap store
C. Data store and tag RAM
D. Tag RAM and dirty store
Answer: C
13. Which Data Center element stores customer and product information when the server is connected to an array?
A. Application
B. Database
C. Server
D. Storage Array
Answer: B
14. What do you monitor as part of server performance?
A. Filesystem utilization
B. HBA status
C. Memory utilization
D. Power supply status
Answer: C
15. What is the name of the drive subassembly containing the platters and R/W heads?
A. ATA
B. HBA
C. HAD
D. IDE
Answer: C
16. Click on the Exhibit button. Which type of backup topology is shown in the exhibit?
A. Direct
B. LAN
C. SAN
D. Mixed
Answer: D
17. What is a set of CLARiiON disks used to provide storage space to a host?
A. Disk Array Enclosure
B. Disk Processor Enclosure
C. Logical Unit Number
D. RAID Group
Answer: D
18. What are replicated in storage array based remote replication?
A. I/Os to source devices
B. Reads from source devices
C. Writes to source devices
D. Writes to target devices
Answer: C
19. An application uses ten 9 GB devices. A full volume local replica of the application is required every 6 hours. Each replica will be kept for 24 hours. How many replica devices are required?
A. 50
B. 10
C. 30
D. 40
Answer: D
20. What best describes a Fibre Channel SAN?
A. Dedicated storage network
B. Global interconnectivity network
C. Multi-protocol storage network
D. Multipurpose system network
Answer: A
21. Which storage method will make data most accessible?
A. Jukebox
B. Magnetic Disk
C. Optical disk
D. Tape
Answer: B
22. What is a feature of Internal DAS?
A. File level I/O utilization
B. High CPU I/O utilization
C. Local storage provisioning
D. Simultaneous volume level operating system accessibility
Answer: C
23. Which aspect of monitoring will allow you to predict the possible failure of FC Switch ports before the ports actually fail?
A. Capacity
B. Health
C. Performance
D. Security
Answer: C
24. What are the three key data center management activities that are interdependent?
A. Installation, Configuration, Problem Solving
B. Manageability, Integrity, Cost
C. Provisioning, Monitoring, Reporting
D. Scalability, Accessibility, Security
Answer: C
25. What is host memory?
A. Connection for parallel communication devices
B. Control point for all host activities and resources
C. High speed interconnect between the CPU and memory
D. Temporary location for commands and data
Answer: D
26. Which remote replication method is most affected by the distance between source and target?
A. Asynchronous
B. Disk buffering
C. Log shipping
D. Synchronous
Answer: D
27. Which Celerra component is used to manage and configure the NAS solution?
A. Control Station
B. Data Mover
C. Disk Array Enclosure
D. Storage Processor
Answer: A
28. When is it necessary to hold application I/O to ensure a consistent copy?
A. Just after creating a point in time replica
B. Just before creating a point in time replica
C. Only when an application spans multiple hosts
D. Only when an application spans multiple storage arrays
Answer: B
29. Which statement is true about iSCSI names?
A. Every initiator or target has a unique iSCSI name
B. iSCSI name is derived from the IP address
C. Only a target requires an iSCSI name
D. Only an initiator requires an iSCSI name
Answer: A
30. What is a standard layer that resides between managed objects and management software?
A. CIFS
B. FC-SW
C. HAD
D. SMI-S
Answer: D


